NSG6430 Exam Guide - Final - OnlineNursingExams

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NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 1(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner knows that a highly valuable assessment tool for evaluating urinary incontinence and contributing factors in daily life is:

Question 1 options:

A)	the interview

B)	a voiding diary

C)	the physical exam

D)	the patient’s response to non-pharmacologic treatments

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Question 2(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner is counseling a 57 year-old patient with urinary incontinence. The patient desires to try non-pharmacological, non-invasive methods of treatment at this time. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s plan of care? Select all that apply.

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Question 2 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	Bladder training
	Kegel exercises
	Eliminate caffeine and alcohol consumption
	Use of bulking agents

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Question 3(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner is performing a bimanual exam on a new OB patient and notices that the lower portion of the patient’s uterus is soft. This is known as:

Question 3 options:

A)	Hegar’s Sign

B)	Chadwick’s Sign

C)	Nightingale’s Sign

D)	Goodell’s Sign

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Question 4(2.5 points)

Your female patient presents for vaginal discharge with an odor, and has noticed painless “bumps” on her vaginal area. Sexual history includes past male partners and her current female partner. On exam you note beefy red papules and an ulcerative lesion on her vulva, granular tissue and scarring, and inguinal adenopathy. You suspect she has:

Question 4 options:

HSV-2

B)	Granuloma Inguinale

Chancroid

D)	Molluscum Contagiosum

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Question 5(2.5 points)

The physical examination of any woman suspected of being abused or battered includes all of the following except:

Question 5 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

A)	a thorough inspection for signs of injury, past and present

B)	a physical assessment just like that of any other adult female

C)	a focus on the patient’s physical appearance, not her behavior

D)	the use of body maps and diagrams to accurately portray the patient’s physical condition

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Question 6(2.5 points)

The most effective means of obtaining the history of abuse is to use a communication model that:

Question 6 options:

A)	avoids having the patient’s children present during the discussion

B)	signals someone is interested and that the woman is not alone

C)	emphasizes the belief that violence is not acceptable, no matter what the batterer might have said to the patient

D)	allows the patient to talk without interruption and with time to relate, emphasize, and repeat her full story

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Question 7(2.5 points)

Clinicians should routinely consider intimate partment violence (IPV) as a possible diagnosis for women who present with all of the following except:

Question 7 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

A)	chronic stress-related symptoms

B)	denial of any physical health problems

C)	central nervous system (CNS) symptoms

D)	gynecologic problems, especially multiple ones

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Question 8(2.5 points)

The factors that enable women to enjoy and control their sexual and reproductive lives, including a physical and emotional state of well-being and the quality of sexual and other close relationships, make up a woman’s:

Question 8 options:

A)	sexual health

B)	gender identit

C)	gender role behaviors

D)	psychosocial orientation

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Question 9(2.5 points)

Which one of the following is not among the ways clinicians can provide a welcoming, safe environment for Lesbian, Gay, Bixsexual, or Transgender (LGBT) patients?NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 9 options:

A)	Avoid the heterosexual assumption by using gender-neutral language.

B)	Explain whether and how information will be documented in the patient’s medical record.

C)	Ignore the sexual status or gender identity of all patients.

D)	Offer mainstream referrals that are culturally sensitive to SGMs.

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Question 10(2.5 points)

Which one of the following is the definition of the term “gender identity”?

Question 10 options:

A)	People who respond erotically to both sexes

B)	A self-label, regardless of biologic or natal sex

C)	People who are similar in age, class, and sexual status

D)	A label for behavior not usually associated with one’s natal sex

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Question 11(2.5 points)

Which one of the following statements about sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is false?

Question 11 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

A)	Lesbians are at very low risk for development of STIs and vaginal infections.

B)	HIV has been identified in case studies of women who report sex only with women.

C)	Transgender women (Male to Female) have extremely high rates of HIV infection.

D)	Risky behaviors for STIs include sex during menses.

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Question 12(2.5 points)

Among the midlife health issues of women, the number one cause of mortality in the United States is:

Question 12 options:

A)	primary osteoporosis

B)	cardiovascular disease

C)	overweight and obesity

cancer

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Question 13(2.5 points)

Lifestyle approaches to manage menopause related vasomotor symptoms include:

Question 13 options:

A)	sleeping more than 8 hours per night

B)	avoiding spicy foods, hot drinks, caffeine, and alcohol

C)	decreasing levels of physical activity

D)	more than 1,000 international units/day of vitamin E

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Question 14(2.5 points)

The standard for managing moderate to severe menopausal symptoms is:

Question 14 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

A)	lifestyle changes, such as dieting and exercising

B)	nonhormone products, such as antidepressant medications

C)	alternative care, such as acupuncture, combined with organic herbs

D)	prescription systemic hormone products, such as estrogen and progestogen

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Question 15(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner is managing an adolescent with a 4 cm functional ovarian cyst that was confirmed on a recent ultrasound. What plan of care should be anticipated for this patient?

Question 15 options:

A)	Repeat bimanual exam in 1 week

B)	Refer for surgical consult

C)	Repeat ultrasound in 2 months

D)	Stop all ovulatory inhibitor meds

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Question 16(2.5 points)

Non-pharmacologic therapy for chronic pelvic pain includes the following: Select all that apply.

Question 16 options:

A)	Vitamin B6

B)	Physical therapy

C)	Aerobic and nonaerobic exercise

D)	Antidepressants

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Question 17(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that all of the following organisms are responsible for infection of the Bartholin’s gland except:

Question 17 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	Streptococcus faecalis
	Klebsiella
	Staphylococcus aureus
	E. Coli

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Question 18(2.5 points)

Treatment of a large, symptomatic Bartholin’s cyst includes all of the following except:

Question 18 options:

	Sitz baths
	Incision and drainage
	Topical corticosteroids
	Antibiotics

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Question 19(2.5 points)

A 44 year-old African American female presents with complaints of menorrhagia x 15 months. Pelvic ultrasound confirms the presence of a large intramural leiomyomata. The nurse practitioner should discuss all of the following options with the patient except:

Question 19 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	GnRH agonist therapy
	Referral for surgical consult
	Progestin therapy
	Estrogen therapy

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Question 20(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner is treating a patient with Elimite for scabies. The proper instructions to the patient should include:

Question 20 options:

	All household contacts should be treated with Elimite regardless of symptoms.
	The medication should be taken orally in one single dose and repeated in 2 weeks.
	Apply only to the body area infested with scabies and repeat treatment in 5 days.
	Apply to all areas of the body from the neck down, wash off after 8 to 14 hours, then repeat treatment in one week

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Question 21(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that the proper management of an asymptomatic woman with a small fibroid should include:

Question 21 options:

	Start combination COC therapy.
	Repeat ultrasound in 3-4 months.
	Reassess in 6 to 12 months.
	Refer for myomectomy.

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Question 22(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner is teaching a patient about pediculosis. Which of the following statements by the nurse practitioner is correct? NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 22 options:

	Nits can survive in hot and humid climates up to 21 days.”
	“Adult pubic lice can survive 72 hours off their host.”
	“Pruritus is not a common manifestation.”
	“The condition is treated with Permethrin cream.”

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Question 23(2.5 points)

All of the following medications may be used for neuropathic pain management of vulvodynia, except:

Question 23 options:

	Neurontin
	SSRIs
	Methotrexate
	Tricyclics

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Question 24(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that which of the following lab tests is appropriate for the patient who presents with symptoms of dysesthetic vulvodynia?

Question 24 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	RPR
	Pap smear
	Wet mount
	Endometrial biopsy

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Question 25(2.5 points)

Which of the following is a common antibiotic for treatment of an infected Bartholin’s cyst?

Question 25 options:

	Minocycline
	Levaquin
	Bactrim
	Ampicillin

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Question 26(2.5 points)

The patient presents with complaints of a painful, swollen lump in her vaginal area. She reports difficulty sitting and walking due to the pain. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis for this patient?

Question 26 options:

	Syphilis chancre
	Lichen Planus
	Genital Wart
	Bartholin’s cyst

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Question 27(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that which of the following are differential diagnoses in an adult female patient with acute pelvic pain. Select all that apply:

Question 27 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

A)	Ectopic pregnancy

B)	Appendicitis

C)	Ovarian cyst with rupture

D)	Pelvic Congestion Syndrome

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Question 28(2.5 points)

When women experience mild premenstrual symptoms, such as mild breast tenderness, abdominal bloating, and mild weight gain from water retention, this is known as:

Question 28 options:

	Luteal phase deficiency
	Premenstrual dysmorphic disorder
	Premenstrual syndrome
	Follicular phase deficiency

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Question 29(2.5 points)

A patient with intraductal papilloma will commonly present with a chief complaint of:

Question 29 options:

	A palpable mass
	Bloody nipple discharge
	Bilateral milky discharge
	Mild localized pain

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Question 30(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that the necessary screening techniques in a patient suspicious of ovarian cancer should include the following: Select all that apply.

Question 30 options:

	CA-125
	Transvaginal ultrasound
	Bimanual pelvic exam
	Pap smear

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Question 31(2.5 points)

Early symptoms experienced by a woman with ovarian cancer include all of the following except:

Question 31 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	Vague abdominal pain
	Abdominal bloating
	Fatigue
	Unexplained weight gain

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Question 32(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient’s risk of ovarian cancer. All of the following factors are associated with an increased risk for ovarian cancer except:

Question 32 options:

	First degree relative with ovarian cancer
	BRCA -1 and 2 mutations
	Obesity
	Oral Contraceptive Use

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Question 33(2.5 points)

Patient education for condylomata acuminata should include all the following except:

Question 33 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	The cause of the condition is a virus of the HPV type
	Sexual partners should be checked and condoms used to decrease incidence of transmission
	Treatment and elimination of visible warts is a sign of cure, and transmission will not occur
	The virus does not always cause a lesion, subclinical infection may occur

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Question 34(2.5 points)

Tina is evaluated and diagnosed with Molluscum Contagiosum. The nurse practitioner understands that clinical presentation of this disease is characterized by:

Question 34 options:

	Fleshy, papular skin colored lesions with indented centers that contain white curdlike material.
	Ulcerated ragged edge lesions that are painful
	Clusters of vesicles that itch and are painful to palpation
	Painless fleshy clusters of growths that resemble grapes or cauliflower

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Question 35(2.5 points)

Sara is 72 years old and has been a widow for 12 years. She presents for her yearly well woman exam. Sara has not been sexually active since age 60. She has had regular pap screenings in her life and has had no abnormal pap tests. Sara asks if she needs a Pap test. Your response would be:

Question 35 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	Yes, you need a Pap test with HPV testing every 5 years.
	Yes, you should have a Pap test every 3 years.
	No, you do not need a Pap test or a pelvic exam again, unless you notice a vaginal discharge, have discomforts, or anything out of the ordinary.
	No, you do not need a Pap test, but I do recommend we do a pelvic exam to assess for abnormalities.

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Question 36(2.5 points)

Misty presents with a painful “sores” in her perineal area, dysuria and dyspareunia. On exam she has 2 shallow ulcerated lesions on the right labia majora and one on the left. She also presents with enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. Based on these findings you suspect she has:

Question 36 options:

	HSV-2
	Genital warts
	Chancroid
	Syphilis lesions

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Question 37(2.5 points)

Which of the following is not true for HIV infection evaluation?

Question 37 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	The CDC recommends HIV testing for all persons seeking evaluation for STIs.
	HIV evaluation is recommended if a patient has a history of unprotected sex with a previously incarcerated male, an uncircumcised male, or participates in anal penetration.
	If a patient is fearful they have been exposed to HIV, but denies all risk factors, it is not recommended to test for HIV.
	Aids is caused by HIV, mainly by sexual contact (anal, vaginal, or oral), contaminated blood and blood products, contaminated semen used for artificial insemination, intrauterine acquisition, and breastmilk.

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Question 38(2.5 points). NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

The nurse practitioner understands that the risk factors for developing vaginal candidiasis include which of the following?

Question 38 options:

	Hypoglycemia
	A diet high in refined sugar
	Use of Vit C supplement
	A habit of consuming live culture yogurt several times a week

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Question 39(2.5 points)

Cindy presents to your clinic for STI testing after realizing her current boyfriend has been seeing other women. She states she was told that one of the women has hepatitis B. Your patient education regarding hepatitis B includes all the following except:

Question 39 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	Hepatitis B is transmitted enterically
	Hepatitis B has an incubation period of 6 weeks to 6 months
	Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAG) indicates if the patient has hepatitis B infection
	Hepatitis B infection primarily affects the liver

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Question 40(2.5 points)

Stacy has made an appointment at your clinic for c/o dysuria. During the HPI she explains, “My bottom hurts when I pee, and I have bumps there”. She has never had this before and is worried. She denies fever, although she feels “a little like I have the flu” explaining she has a headache and feels achy and tired. She denies exposure to a STI noting she and her partner have been monogamous for 6 years. On exam you notice a cluster of painful vesicles adjacent to the vaginal introitus. The most likely diagnosis is:

Question 40 options:

	Syphilis
	Genital Herpes
	Chancroid
	Chlamydia

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Question 41(2.5 points)

You see an 18-year-old woman with a history of Chlamydia infection and a total of five lifetime partners. Based on the latest evidence-based guidelines, you recommend:

Question 41 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	Pap smear only
	Pap smear with HPV testing
	Pap smear and STI testing
	STI testing only

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Question 42(2.5 points)

Karen was recently diagnosed with primary syphilis. The nurse practitioner understands that the first-line treatment option for primary syphilis include:

Question 42 options:

	Penicillin
	Ciprofloxacin
	Erythromycin
	Ceftriaxone

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Question 43(2.5 points)

While educating Karen about the different stages of syphilis, which of the following is not representative of the presentation of secondary syphilis?

Question 43 options:

	generalized rash
	chancre
	arthralgia
	lymphadenopathy

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Question 44(2.5 points)

Karen was recently diagnosed with primary syphilis by her primary care provider, she is very upset and inquires how long after sexual contact do syphilis symptoms typically occur. What is the correct response by the primary care provider?NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 44 options:

	3-4 days
	1 week
	3 weeks
	6 weeks

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Question 45(2.5 points)

Which of the following terms describe the mechanism of action of Imiquimod (Aldara) in the management of genital warts?NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 45 options:

	keratolytic
	immune modifier
	cryogenic
	cytolytic

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Question 46(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that HPV types _____ and ____are most often associated with cervical and anogenital cancer.

Question 46 options:

	1, 2, and 3
	6 and 11
	16 and 18
	22 and 24

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Question 47(2.5 points)

Jenna was evaluated and diagnosed with condyloma acuminatum. Treatment options for Jenna will include all of the following except:

Question 47 options:

A)	Topical acyclovir

B)	Cryotherapy

Podofilox

D)	Tricholoroacetic acid .

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Question 48(2.5 points)

Which of the following is a treatment option for a 30-year-old woman with PID and a history of severe hive-form reaction when taking a penicillin or cephalosporin?NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 48 options:

A)	Ofloxacin with metronidazole

B)	Amoxicillin with gentamicin

C)	Cefixime with vancomycin

D)	Clindamycin with azithromycin

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Question 49(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that a complication of gonoccocal and chlamydial genitourinary infection in women include which of the following:

Question 49 options:

A)	Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

B)	Conjunctivitis

C)	Acute pyelonephritis

D)	Prostatitis

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Question 50(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that women with PID typically present with all of the following except:

Question 50 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Fever

B)	Leukopenia

C)	Cervical motion tenderness

D)	abdominal pain

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Question 51(2.5 points)

Elizabeth was evaluated and diagnosed with a primary outbreak of genital herpes in the clinic today. The treatment plan for Elizabeth will include a prescription for:

Question 51 options:

Ribavirin

Indinavir

C)	Valacyclovir

D)	Cyclosporine

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Question 52(2.5 points)

Elizabeth was recently diagnosed with genital herpes after having unprotected intercourse with a new partner. The nurse practitioner explains to Christine that the incubation period for HSV Type 2 is approximately:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 52 options:

A)	4 to 7 days up to 4 weeks

24 hours

24 days

D)	1 to 3 days up to 14 days

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Question 53(2.5 points)

Kristin returns to the clinic for follow-up on STI results. The nurse practitioner informs her the Chlamydia test was positive. Which of the following agents will the nurse practitioner prescribe for treatment?

Question 53 options:

A)	Amoxicillin

B)	Metronidazole

C)	Azithromycin

D)	Tinidazole

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Question 54(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner student is studying the CDC guidelines for treating sexually transmitted infections. Which of the following agents is recommended for Gonorrhea treatment?

Question 54 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

A)	Ceftriaxone

B)	Doxycycline

C)	Ketoconazole

D)	Amoxicillin

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Question 55(2.5 points)

A 30-year-old woman presents without symptoms but states that her male partner has dysuria without penile discharge. Examination of the woman reveals a friable cervix with yellow discharge from the cervical os. This description is most consistent with an infection caused by: Select all that apply.

Question 55 options:

A)	Chlamydia trachomatis

B)	Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C)	Human papilloma virus (HPV)

D)	Trichomonas vaginalis

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Question 56(2.5 points)

Karen was diagnosed with trichomoniasis by her primary care provider and treated with:

Question 56 options:

A)	Metronidazole 500 mg po BID x 7 days (If single-dose metronidazole treatment fails and reinfection is excluded, metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for 7 days should be prescribed.) this is the correct answer if first treatment doesn’t work

B)	Terconazole vaginally Q HS x 5 days

C)	Azithromycin 1 gm po x 1 dose

D)	Bactrim DS i po Q 12 hours x 3 days

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Question 57(2.5 points)

A 24-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of thin, greenish yellow vaginal discharge with perivaginal irritation. Physical examination findings include vaginal erythema with petechial hemorrhages on the cervix, numerous white blood cells, and motile organisms on microscopic examination. NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final. These findings most likely represent:

Question 57 options:

A)	motile sperm with irritative vaginitis

B)	trichomoniasis

C)	bacterial vaginosis

D)	condyloma acuminatum

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Question 58(2.5 points)

For patients needing topical treatment for vulvovaginitis caused by Candida albicans, the nurse practitioner will prescribe:

Question 58 options:

A)	metronidazole gel

B)	clotrimazole cream

C)	hydrocortisone ointment

D)	clindamycin cream

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Question 59(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that women with bacterial vaginosis typically present with:

Question 59 options:

vulvitis

pruritus

dysuria

D)	malodorous discharge

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Question 60(2.5 points)

The U.S. Preventative Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends ____________ of folic acid supplement daily at least one month before conception for all women with average risk for neural tube defects.NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 60 options:

8000 mg

B)	.4 to .8 mg

4 to 8 mg

4000 mg

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Question 61(2.5 points)

The American College of Obstetrician &Gynecologists recommend that all pregnant women be offered aneuploidy screening before 20 weeks gestation. This test identifies women whose fetuses are at increased risk for which of the following? Select all that apply.

Question 61 options:

A)	Trisomy 11

B)	Trisomy 13

C)	Trisomy 18

D)	Trisomy 21

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Question 62(2.5 points)

An important part of patient education for the patient with bacterial vaginosis who is receiving a prescription for oral Metronidazole is:

Question 62 options:NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

	The patient should be treated prophylactically for a yeast infection.
	The medication may cause constipation.
	Avoid alcohol for 48 hours after completing medication.
	The patient’s partner will need treatment also.

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Question 63(2.5 points)

For the patient with chronic bacterial vaginosis, the nurse practitioner will prescribe:

Question 63 options:

A)	Metronidazole 500 mg po weekly for 2 months

B)	Metronidazole 500 mg po BID x 7 days

C)	Metronidazole gel .75% vaginally BID x 5 days

D)	Metronidazole gel .75% vaginally 1-2 times a week for 4 to 6 months

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Question 64(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner’s exam findings on a patient with vaginal Candidiasis is positive for all of the following except:

Question 64 options:

A)	erythematous vaginal mucosa

B)	thick, white, curd-like vaginal discharge

C)	vaginal ph of 7

D)	hyphae visualized on wet prep

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Question 65(2.5 points)

A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14, 2017. Using Nageles Rule, what is the client’s expected date of birth (EDB)?NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 65 options:

A)	September 17, 2017

B)	November 7, 2017

C)	November 21, 2017

D)	December 17, 2017

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Question 66(2.5 points)

Which documentation on a woman’s chart on postpartum day 14 indicates a normal involution process?

Question 66 options:

A)	Moderate lochia rubra

B)	Breasts soft and symmetrical

C)	Fundus below the symphysis pubis and nonpalpable

D)	Episiotomy pink and healing

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Question 67(2.5 points)

The nurse practitioner understands that the hormone, __________, remains elevated in breastfeeding women in the postpartum period.NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

Question 67 options:

Estrogen

B)	Progesterone

Prolactin

D)	Human placental lactogen

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Question 68(2.5 points)

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The nurse practitioner is recommending daily Calcium supplementation of ___________ to her female patients that are older than 50 years of age.

Question 68 options:

800 mg

1000 mg

1200 mg

1500 mg

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Question 69(2.5 points)

Osteoporosis is diagnosed when the patient’s bone density is more than ______ standard deviation(s) below the average bone mass for women younger than 35 years old.

Question 69 options:

1.5

2.5

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Question 70(2.5 points)

Based on the latest ACOG guidelines, the nurse practitioner understands that the recommended time to initiate screening for cervical cancer in women is:

Question 70 options: NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

NSG6430 Exam Guide – Final

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